"Do Gentile Christians Become "Spiritual Jews"?"

by, Dave Root
Houston, TX, USA
Used With Permission

 

Question:

"I heard a pastor say that Gentile Christians are all "spiritual Jews." Is that true?"

Answer:

In order to answer this question, we need to understand some terminology. If we don't know what makes a person Jewish then we won't be able to determine if Gentile Christians are "spiritual Jews."

Here are several definitions from Easton's Bible Dictionary:

So according to the above definitions, the people of the 12 tribes (i.e. the descendants of Jacob), are collectively referred to in the New Testament as "Jews," "Hebrews," and "Israelites." The term "Jews" distinguishes them from Gentiles (i.e. everyone who is not a Jew).

Now let's take a look at a short family history of the Jewish people. Recall that Abraham had two sons named Ishmael and Isaac (Genesis 16:16, 17:18-21). Isaac had two sons named Esau and Jacob (Genesis 25:21-26). Jacob was renamed "Israel" by God (Genesis 32:28). Jacob (Israel) had 12 sons (Genesis 35:22-26), who were the 12 patriarchs of Israel (Acts 7:8). One of these patriarchs was Judah (Genesis 35:22-23), from whom the word "Jew" is derived (see the definition for "Jew" above). Eventually the word "Jew" referred to all of the Israelites (i.e. the 12 tribes who were descended from Jacob - see the definitions above).

So a "Jew" is a physical descendant of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. This is why God is sometimes referred to as "the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob" (see Matthew 22:32, Luke 13:28, 20:37, Acts 3:13, 7:32, for example). Jewish-ness is based on a person's physical ancestry, and therefore a Jew can never become a non-Jew.

A "Gentile" is a person who is not a Jew. Gentile-ness is based on a person's physical ancestry, and therefore a Gentile can never become a non-Gentile. Gentiles who converted to Judaism were never called "Jews," they were called "proselytes" (see Matthew 23:15, Acts 2:10-11, 6:5, 13:43, for example). The NIV usually translates the Greek word proselutos ("proselyte") as "convert," but other translations use the word "proselyte."

In the New Testament, the word "Israel" most often refers to the land or the people of Israel as a whole (made up of Jews, whether saved or unsaved), but as we will see, it sometimes refers specifically to saved Jews (the "true Israel," also called "the Israel of God"). We will also see that the word "Israel" never refers to the Church, which is made up of saved Jews and saved Gentiles.

Now, in order to determine what a "spiritual Jew" is, it helps if we understand what a "spiritual person" is. Notice that a spiritual person is under the control of the Spirit:

"This is what we speak, not in words taught us by human wisdom but in words taught by the Spirit, expressing spiritual truths in spiritual words. The man without the Spirit does not accept the things that come from the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him, and he cannot understand them, because they are spiritually discerned. The spiritual man makes judgments about all things, but he himself is not subject to any man's judgment: "For who has known the mind of the Lord that he may instruct him?" But we have the mind of Christ. Brothers, I could not address you as spiritual but as worldly--mere infants in Christ." (1 Corinthians 2:13-3:1)

"Brothers, if someone is caught in a sin, you who are spiritual should restore him gently. But watch yourself, or you also may be tempted." (Galatians 6:1)

In the first passage above, Paul said that a person who does not have the Spirit (i.e. an unsaved person) cannot understand the spiritual truths in the Bible. A spiritual person can understand these truths. But then Paul said that the Corinthians were worldly and were mere infants in Christ, and he could not address them as "spiritual." In other words, they were Christians, but they were not yet under the control of the Spirit to any great degree. In the second passage above, Paul spoke of restoring Christians who have sinned. Paul said, "you who are spiritual" should restore a Christian (who is not yet as spiritual) who has sinned. Being "spiritual" means that we are mature enough in Christ that we are being led by and controlled by the Spirit.

If a Jewish person is saved and is under the control of the Spirit, then he is a spiritual Jew. If a Gentile person is saved and is under the control of the Spirit, then he is a spiritual Gentile.

Part of the confusion about Gentiles becoming "spiritual Jews" comes from several passages in the Bible which refer to Christians as "children of Abraham":

"Therefore, the promise comes by faith, so that it may be by grace and may be guaranteed to all Abraham's offspring --not only to those who are of the law but also to those who are of the faith of Abraham. He is the father of us all." (Romans 4:16)

"Understand, then, that those who believe are children of Abraham. The Scripture foresaw that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, and announced the gospel in advance to Abraham: "All nations will be blessed through you." So those who have faith are blessed along with Abraham, the man of faith." (Galatians 3:7-9)

"If you belong to Christ, then you are Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise." (Galatians 3:29)

These passages tell us that whether we are Jews or Gentiles by birth, if we have faith in Jesus then we are considered to be children of Abraham and heirs according to the promise. But being children of Abraham does not make us "spiritual Jews." After all, Abraham's first child was Ishmael, and according to scholars Ishmael is the ancestor of much of the Arab world (the Mideast turmoil between Arabs and Jews is essentially a family feud between the descendants of Abraham's two sons). Notice that Ishmael was a child of Abraham, yet Ishmael was not a Jew. Being a child of Abraham does not make a person Jewish, it is being a child of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob that makes a person Jewish. If the Bible said that Gentile Christians are considered to be children of Jacob, then we might have reason to be called "spiritual Jews." This is because not all descendants of Abraham are Jews, but all descendants of Jacob are Jews. But the Bible never calls us "children of Jacob." We Gentile Christians have inherited the spiritual promises of Abraham by faith, but we have not inherited the physical, material, or national promises that God made to Abraham and his physical descendants in the line of Isaac and Jacob (i.e. the Jews). For example, here's what a prominent Bible commentary says about this:

"The fact that believers in this Church Age are identified with Abraham and God's covenant with him does not mean that the physical and temporal promises to Abraham and his physical descendants are either spiritualized or abrogated." (The Bible Knowledge Commentary, Walvoord and Zuck, Dallas Theological Seminary, p.454)

"[Gentile Christians] become Abraham's spiritual seed. They inherit the promise of justification by faith as Paul explained earlier (cf. Gal. 3:6-9). To suggest, as amillenarians do, that Gentile believers inherit the national promises given to the believing Jewish remnant - that the church thus supplants Israel or is the "new Israel" - is to read into these verses what is not there." (The Bible Knowledge Commentary, Walvoord and Zuck, Dallas Theological Seminary, p.600)

In other words, Gentile Christians have inherited the spiritual promises made to Abraham, but they have not inherited the physical and national promises that God made to Abraham's physical descendants. Despite what some well-meaning people believe, the Church has not "replaced" Israel. We will see plenty of evidence of this in a moment.

Notice the distinction that Paul made between Jews and Gentiles in the following passages:

"I am not ashamed of the gospel, because it is the power of God for the salvation of everyone who believes: first for the Jew, then for the Gentile." (Romans 1:16)

"Is God the God of Jews only? Is he not the God of Gentiles too? Yes, of Gentiles too" (Romans 3:29)

"They were pleased to do it, and indeed they owe it to them. For if the Gentiles have shared in the Jews' spiritual blessings, they owe it to the Jews to share with them their material blessings." (Romans 15:27)

"Before certain men came from James, he [the apostle Peter] used to eat with the Gentiles [saved Gentiles]. But when they arrived, he began to draw back and separate himself from the Gentiles because he was afraid of those who belonged to the circumcision group. The other Jews [saved Jews] joined him in his hypocrisy, so that by their hypocrisy even Barnabas was led astray. When I saw that they were not acting in line with the truth of the gospel, I said to Peter in front of them all, "You are a Jew, yet you live like a Gentile and not like a Jew. How is it, then, that you force Gentiles [saved Gentiles] to follow Jewish customs?" (Galatians 2:12-14)

Paul was speaking of Christians in these passages, and he distinguished between those Christians who are Jews and those who are Gentiles. He never referred to Gentile Christians as "spiritual Jews." In fact, Gentile Christians are never referred to as "spiritual Jews" anywhere in the entire New Testament.

Here's another passage which has confused some people:

"A man is not a Jew if he is only one outwardly, nor is circumcision merely outward and physical. No, a man is a Jew if he is one inwardly; and circumcision is circumcision of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the written code." (Romans 2:28-29)

In order to properly understand any passage of Scripture, it is important to look at the context and determine to whom the passage is addressed. If we go back eleven verses and look at Romans 2:17, we can see exactly to whom Paul was speaking:

"Now you, if you call yourself a Jew; if you rely on the law and brag about your relationship to God" (Romans 2:17)

From Romans 2:17 down into Romans chapter 3, Paul was speaking to Jews. He was not speaking to Gentiles or about Gentiles in any way. Paul was specifically speaking to Jews when he said, "A man is not a Jew if he is only one outwardly, ... a man is a Jew if he is one inwardly." In other words, Paul was saying that a true Jew is one who is not only Jewish outwardly (by birth), but one who is Jewish outwardly and has the inner circumcision of the heart through faith in Christ. Paul was speaking specifically to Jews, and he was distinguishing between saved Jews and unsaved Jews. None of this has any bearing on Gentiles. In fact, Paul went on to say:

"What advantage, then, is there in being a Jew, or what value is there in circumcision? Much in every way!" (Romans 3:1-2)

Paul was still speaking to saved Jews, and he said that there is much advantage in being a saved Jew. So he was definitely making distinctions between saved Jews and saved Gentiles. Gentile Christians do not become "spiritual Jews."

Another source of confusion is when the New Testament seems to say that there is "no difference" between Jews and Gentiles:

"That if you confess with your mouth, "Jesus is Lord," and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved. For it is with your heart that you believe and are justified, and it is with your mouth that you confess and are saved. As the Scripture says, "Anyone who trusts in him will never be put to shame." For there is no difference between Jew and Gentile--the same Lord is Lord of all and richly blesses all who call on him, for, "Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved."" (Romans 10:9-13)

"The body is a unit, though it is made up of many parts; and though all its parts are many, they form one body. So it is with Christ. For we were all baptized by one Spirit into one body--whether Jews or Greeks, slave or free--and we were all given the one Spirit to drink." (1 Corinthians 12:12-13)

"So the law was put in charge to lead us to Christ that we might be justified by faith. Now that faith has come, we are no longer under the supervision of the law. You are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus, for all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ. There is neither Jew nor Greek, slave nor free, male nor female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus." (Galatians 3:24-28)

"Do not lie to each other, since you have taken off your old self with its practices and have put on the new self, which is being renewed in knowledge in the image of its Creator. Here there is no Greek or Jew, circumcised or uncircumcised, barbarian, Scythian, slave or free, but Christ is all, and is in all." (Colossians 3:9-11)

People sometimes interpret these passages to mean that all distinctions between Jews and Gentiles have been erased. But notice that in Romans 10:9-13 (above), Paul was saying that Jews and Gentiles are all saved and justified in exactly the same way. There is no difference in the way that Jews and Gentiles are saved. In 1 Corinthians 12:12-13 (above), Paul was saying that Jews and Gentiles (or "Greeks") all enter the body of Christ in exactly the same way. In Galatians 3:24-28 (above), Paul was saying that Jews and Gentiles all receive justification in exactly the same way. In Colossians 3:9-11 (above), Paul was saying that Jews and Gentiles grow in spiritual maturity in exactly the same way. Paul was saying that the principles of the Christian faith apply to every believer, whether we are Jews or Gentiles. However, notice that there are still differences between Jews and Gentiles, even in the body of Christ. For example, if Paul had been teaching that all distinctions between Jews and Gentiles have been erased, then he would also have been teaching that all distinctions between male and female have been erased as well (see Galatians 3:24-28, above). But clearly there are still distinctions (physical and otherwise) between male and female Christians, and in fact Paul himself taught that there are distinctions between male and female Christians (see 1 Corinthians 11:3-15, 14:34-35, Ephesians 5:22-33, Colossians 3:18-19, 1 Timothy 2:11-15, Titus 2:1-5). Furthermore, in most of the above passages Paul mentioned those who are slaves and those who are free. If Paul was teaching that all distinctions between Jews and Gentiles have been erased, then he was also teaching that all distinctions between slave and free have been erased. Yet in other passages Paul specifically taught that the distinctions between slave and free within the body of Christ continue to exist (see Ephesians 6:5-9, Colossians 3:22-4:1, 1 Timothy 6:1-2, Titus 2:9-10). Since there are definite distinctions between male and female and between slave and free within the body of Christ, this shows that in the above passages Paul was not teaching that all distinctions between Jews and Gentiles have been erased within the body of Christ.

Again, the Bible does not teach that Gentile Christians are "spiritual Jews," and it also does not teach that the Church has replaced Israel. Of the 83 times that "Israel" appears in the NIV New Testament, only 3 of those passages (Romans 9:6, Romans 11:26, and Galatians 6:16) tend to be used by some people to prove that the Church is the "new Israel." In fact, Romans 9:6 and 11:26 are not always used by those people as proof that the Church has replaced Israel, which leaves Galatians 6:16 as the main verse.

First let's look at Romans 9:3-6:

"For I could wish that I myself were cursed and cut off from Christ for the sake of my brothers, those of my own race, the people of Israel. Theirs is the adoption as sons; theirs the divine glory, the covenants, the receiving of the law, the temple worship and the promises. Theirs are the patriarchs, and from them is traced the human ancestry of Christ, who is God over all, forever praised! Amen. It is not as though God's word had failed. For not all who are descended from Israel are Israel." (Romans 9:3-6)

Romans 9:6 (above) says, "For not all who are descended from Israel are Israel." Some people use this passage as evidence that the Church has replaced Israel, but that's not what this verse says. In fact, many people who believe that the Church has replaced Israel do not use this passage to prove their view because they recognize that that's not what this verse means. In Romans 9:3-6 (above), notice that Paul was speaking about his own race, the people of Israel. He was not talking about Gentiles in any way. The Jews believed that since they were the people of God, they were automatically going to heaven. What Paul was saying in Romans 9:6 (above) is that not all who are physically descended from Israel are part of the true Israel, the Israel of God. This is the same argument that Paul made several chapters earlier when he said that a true Jew is one who is not only Jewish outwardly (by birth), but one who is Jewish outwardly and has the inner circumcision of the heart through faith in Christ (as we saw in Romans 2:28-29, above). That's what makes a person a member of the true Israel, the Israel of God. Paul was specifically speaking about Jews, and he was distinguishing between saved Jews and unsaved Jews. None of this has any bearing on Gentile Christians, and this passage does not teach that the Church has "replaced" Israel.

Now let's look at Romans 11:25-28:

"I do not want you to be ignorant of this mystery, brothers, so that you may not be conceited: Israel has experienced a hardening in part until the full number of the Gentiles has come in. And so all Israel will be saved, as it is written: "The deliverer will come from Zion; he will turn godlessness away from Jacob. And this is my covenant with them when I take away their sins." As far as the gospel is concerned, they are enemies on your account; but as far as election is concerned, they are loved on account of the patriarchs" (Romans 11:25-28)

Romans 11:26 (above) says, "And so all Israel will be saved." Since the Church is made up of people who are saved, some people believe that Paul must have been referring to the Church in Romans 11:26 (above), and therefore the Church must be the "new Israel." However, it's important that we look at the context of this verse. Notice that Paul said that Israel has experienced a "hardening in part." Part of Israel is hardened to the Gospel, and therefore the Church and Israel cannot be one and the same. In the passage above, Paul also said that God will turn godlessness away from Jacob, which is another reference to the nation of Israel (it is not a reference to the Church). Then Paul said that Israel is loved on account of the patriarchs, which again is a reference to the nation of Israel, not to the Church. Paul was making the very same argument that we have seen him make several times before. He was saying that part of Israel is hardened against the Gospel, but the other part of Israel is the true Israel, the Israel of God. None of this has any bearing on Gentile Christians, and this passage does not teach that the Church has "replaced" Israel.

Romans 9:6 (above) and 11:26 (above) are not used as proof by everyone who believes that the Church has replaced Israel. Of the 83 times that "Israel" appears in the NIV New Testament, only Galatians 6:16 seems to be consistently used by everyone who equates the Church with Israel. Here is Galatians 6:16 in context:

"Those who want to make a good impression outwardly are trying to compel you to be circumcised. The only reason they do this is to avoid being persecuted for the cross of Christ. Not even those who are circumcised obey the law, yet they want you to be circumcised that they may boast about your flesh. May I never boast except in the cross of our Lord Jesus Christ, through which the world has been crucified to me, and I to the world. Neither circumcision nor uncircumcision means anything; what counts is a new creation. Peace and mercy to all who follow this rule, even to the Israel of God." (Galatians 6:12-16)

Galatians 6:16 ("the Israel of God"), above, is the main verse which is often used as proof that the Church has "replaced" Israel. But notice that Galatians 6:16 does not say that the Church has replaced Israel. It does not say that "the Israel of God" is the Church. This means that certain well-meaning people are reading into this passage something which is not actually there. And yet this is the main verse which is used as proof that the Church has "replaced" Israel!

Part of the confusion in Galatians 6:16 (above) is that the NIV and the Amplified Bible have translated the Greek word kai ("and") as "even," which makes the passage look like: "even to the Israel of God." However, that is not the normal use of the Greek word kai, as we can see in a literal translation of Galatians 6:15-16:

"for in Christ Jesus neither circumcision availeth anything, nor uncircumcision, but a new creation; and [kai] as many as by this rule do walk -- peace upon them, and [kai] kindness, and [kai] on the Israel of God!" (Galatians 6:15-16, Young's Literal Translation)

As this literal translation demonstrates, the Greek word kai occurs three times in Galatians 6:16. In the first two occurrences, the NIV has translated kai as "and" (which is its normal meaning), but in the third occurrence of kai in this verse the NIV changed the translation to "even." This inconsistency in translation has caused some people to misunderstand Paul's meaning.

In order to understand what Paul was saying here, we need to look at the context. First of all, notice the situation which Paul was addressing:

"the Book of Galatians is concerned with Gentiles who were attempting to attain justification and/or sanctification through the law. The ones deceiving them were the Judaizers, who were Jews demanding adherence to the Law of Moses." (Israelology: The Missing Link in Systematic Theology, Arnold Fruchtenbaum, p.758, emphasis added)

Paul was writing to Gentile Christians, and he was saying that certain Jews (often called "the Judaizers") were trying to force the Gentiles to be circumcised. Paul said that circumcision has no value for a Christian, and then he pronounced a blessing of peace and mercy on all who follow this rule of not becoming circumcised. Paul was specifically speaking to Gentiles, and in fact only the Gentiles could follow this rule of not becoming circumcised because the Jewish Christian men had already been circumcised on the eighth day of life according to the Jewish law (Leviticus 12:2-3, Luke 1:59, 2:21, and Philippians 3:2-5, for example). Notice that in Galatians 6:16 (above), Paul was speaking a blessing of peace and mercy upon two groups of people:

  1. "neither circumcision availeth anything, nor uncircumcision, ... and as many as by this rule do walk -- peace upon them, and kindness" (Galatians 6:15-16a)
In the first part of Galatians 6:16, Paul pronounced a blessing on Gentile Christians who follow this rule by not becoming circumcised.
  1. "and on the Israel of God" (Galatians 6:16b)

     

    In the second part of Galatians 6:16, Paul also pronounced this blessing on the Jewish Christians (they are "the Israel of God" or the "true Israel," as we have already seen in several other passages).
In the second part of Galatians 6:16, Paul also pronounced this blessing on the Jewish Christians (they are "the Israel of God" or the "true Israel," as we have already seen in several other passages).

In Galatians 6:16 (above), Paul pronounced a blessing of peace and kindness on saved Gentiles and on saved Jews.

What this all boils down to is that the New Testament does not teach that the Church is the "new Israel." In fact, the New Testament often makes a distinction between Israel and the Church, as in the following examples:

The apostle Paul was a Christian, and therefore he was a member of the Church. Yet he described the people of Israel, those of his own race, as being largely unsaved. Since the word "Israel" is referring to the unsaved people of Israel, then there is obviously a distinction between "Israel" and "the Church."
Paul said that the Gentiles had obtained righteousness by faith, and therefore these Gentiles were in the Church. But he said that Israel had not attained righteousness. Again, the word "Israel" is referring to the unsaved people of Israel, so there is obviously a distinction between "Israel" and "the Church."
Paul's desire was for Israel to be saved. The word "Israelites" is referring to the unsaved people of Israel, so once again we can see that there is obviously a distinction between "Israel" and "the Church."
Paul implied that some Israelites had accepted the Good News (and were therefore members of the Church), but not all of the Israelites had accepted the Good News. The word "Israelites" is partially referring to the unsaved people of Israel, so once again we can see that there is obviously a distinction between "Israel" and "the Church."
Paul said that salvation has come to the Gentiles in order to make Israel envious. Why? Because the majority of the people of Israel have not received salvation. Once again, the word "Israel" is referring to the unsaved people of Israel, so there is obviously a distinction between "Israel" and "the Church."
Paul was talking to saved Gentiles (who were therefore in the Church), and he was distinguishing them from his own people (the people of Israel) whom he hoped would receive salvation. Once again, Paul was referring to the unsaved people of Israel, so there is obviously a distinction between "Israel" and "the Church."
Paul specifically distinguished between three groups of people here: unsaved Jews, unsaved Gentiles, and the Church. Once again, these Jews are the unsaved people of Israel, so there is obviously a distinction between "Israel" and "the Church."

The above passages are examples where the New Testament distinguishes between unbelieving Israel (i.e. unsaved Jews) and the Church. In addition, the New Testament also provides a number of examples where saved Jews are distinguished from saved Gentiles within the Church:

The apostle Paul was a Christian, and therefore he was in the Church. But he was also an Israelite. As a saved Israelite, Paul was a member of the "true Israel," which he referred to as "the Israel of God" (see Galatians 6:16, above). Paul said that God did not totally reject Israel, so once again he was making a distinction between Israel and the Church. The Church has not "replaced" Israel.
Paul specifically pointed out that Gentile Christians share in the Jews' spiritual blessings. We Gentile Christians have inherited the spiritual promises of Abraham by faith, but we have not inherited the physical, material, or national promises that God made to Abraham and his physical descendants in the line of Isaac and Jacob (i.e. to the Jews). The Church has not "replaced" Israel.
Paul made a specific mention of "the churches of the Gentiles." Again we can see that Paul made distinctions between Gentiles and Jews within the body of Christ. He never referred to Gentile Christians as "spiritual Jews," and he never referred to the Church as the "new Israel."
The apostle Peter, a Jewish Christian, would often fellowship with Gentile Christians. But he began to draw away from them so that he wouldn't receive criticism from other Jews for associating with Gentiles. Notice that Peter did not defend himself by making the argument that saved Gentiles are "spiritual Jews" (and therefore he should be free to associate with his fellow "Jews"). Notice that he also did not make the argument that saved Gentiles are part of the "new Israel" (and therefore he should be free to associate with his fellow "Israelites"). Instead, there was a clear distinction in the minds of the apostles and the early Christians between Jews and Gentiles, even within the body of Christ. Peter was wrong to separate himself from Gentile Christians in order to appease certain Jews, but it shows that he did not try to argue that the Gentile Christians had become Jews in any way, whether spiritual or otherwise.
This passage says that Gentile Christians are heirs together with Israel and sharers together with Israel in the body of Christ. It does not say that Gentile Christians become Israel. Once again we can see that Paul distinguished between Gentiles and Jews within the body of Christ. The "true Israel" (or "the Israel of God") is one part of the Church, and the saved Gentiles are the other part of the Church. They are "sharers together" in the promise in Christ Jesus, which shows that the Church has not "replaced" Israel.
Paul was writing to the church at Colosse, which was a Gentile church in Asia Minor. Notice that Paul was saying that certain Christians were his fellow Jews, but that Epaphras was a Christian who was one of the Colossians' fellow Gentiles. Paul was making a specific distinction between Christians who were Gentiles and Christians who were Jews.

We have now seen examples where unsaved Jews (i.e. unbelieving Israel) are distinguished from the Church, and we have seen examples where there is a distinction between Jews and Gentiles within the Church. In addition, there are entire books (or portions of books) in the New Testament which are specifically addressed to Jews or to Gentiles within the Church:

The Gospel of Matthew was addressed primarily to Jews, which is one reason why Matthew gave a detailed genealogy of Jesus' Jewish ancestry based on significant periods in Israel's history. For example, here are some things that Bible scholars say about the Gospel of Matthew:

"Of the four gospels, the first, Matthew, was written to the Jews." (Israelology: The Missing Link in Systematic Theology, Arnold Fruchtenbaum, p.763, emphasis added)

"it appears that Matthew had at least two reasons for writing. First, he wanted to show unbelieving Jews that Jesus is the Messiah. ... Second, Matthew wrote to encourage Jewish believers." (The Bible Knowledge Commentary, Walvoord and Zuck, Dallas Theological Seminary, p.16, emphasis added)

This section of Romans was addressed specifically to Gentile Christians. For example, Paul talked about spiritual gifts and about being "mutually encouraged by each other's faith," so he was writing to Christians. Then he said that he hoped to have a harvest among the readers of this section of Romans, just as he had had among the other Gentiles. This shows that he was addressing this section of Romans to Gentile Christians.
This section of Romans was addressed specifically to Jewish Christians. Paul said, "if you call yourself a Jew," and Paul mentioned the Jewish Law, so he was writing specifically to Jewish Christians at this point.
This section of Romans was addressed specifically to Gentile Christians.
This section of Ephesians was addressed specifically to Gentile Christians.
The book of Hebrews was addressed primarily to Jewish Christians. For example, here are some things that Bible scholars say about the book of Hebrews:

"More knowledge can be gained about the recipients of the epistle than the author. First, they were obviously Jewish, and the author writes with full expectation that his readers will respect the Old Testament. The whole back drop of the letter is from Jewish history and religion. Second, they were Jewish believers, because only these would be in danger of going back into Judaism." (Israelology: The Missing Link in Systematic Theology, Arnold Fruchtenbaum, p.950, emphasis added)

"the author's heavy stress on Jewish prototypes and his earnest polemic against the permanence of the Levitical system are best explained if the audience was largely Jewish and inclined to be swayed back to their old faith. The heavy and extensive appeal to the authority of the Old Testament Scriptures also was most suitable to readers who had been brought up on them." (The Bible Knowledge Commentary, Walvoord and Zuck, Dallas Theological Seminary, p.778, emphasis added)

The book of James was addressed primarily to Jewish Christians. For example, here are some things that Bible scholars say about the book of James:

"The recipients of the epistle are the twelve tribes which are of the Dispersion. The term Dispersion was and is a technical Jewish term for Jews living outside the land." (Israelology: The Missing Link in Systematic Theology, Arnold Fruchtenbaum, p.981, emphasis added)

"Clearly addressed to "the 12 tribes scattered among the nations" (James 1:1), this letter has a marked Jewish flavor. ... The letter is definitely to a Jewish constituency. Though the letter demonstrates careful Greek diction, it is nonetheless filled with extensive Hebrew symbolism." (The Bible Knowledge Commentary, Walvoord and Zuck, Dallas Theological Seminary, p.816, emphasis added)

The book of 2 Peter was addressed primarily to Jewish Christians. For example, here are some things that Bible scholars say about the book of 2 Peter:

"As 3:1 makes clear, this epistle was written to the same group as 1 Peter." (Israelology: The Missing Link in Systematic Theology, Arnold Fruchtenbaum, p.1004, emphasis added)

"It is likely that Peter wrote to the Jewish Christians scattered to the West (cf. 1 Peter 1:1) and that James addressed the Jewish Christians scattered to the East, in Babylon and Mesopotamia." (The Bible Knowledge Commentary, Walvoord and Zuck, Dallas Theological Seminary, p.816, emphasis added)

We have now seen Scriptural examples where unsaved Jews (i.e. unbelieving Israel) are distinguished from the Church, and we have seen examples where there is a distinction between Jews and Gentiles within the Church, and we have seen that there are entire books (or portions of books) in the New Testament which are specifically addressed to Jews or to Gentiles within the Church.

All of these distinctions provide further evidence (in addition to the great weight of evidence which we have already seen) that Gentile Christians do not become "spiritual Jews" and that the word "Israel" never refers to the Church.

In fact, the actions of the apostles and the early leaders of the Church give us even more confirmations of this. Consider that in Scripture, a person was Jewish if his father was Jewish. On the other hand, if a person's mother was a Jew and his father was a Gentile, then technically that person was not considered to be Jewish. An example of this is in Leviticus 24:10-11, where a certain man is repeatedly described as being a non-Israelite even though his mother was Jewish:

"Now the son of an Israelite mother and an Egyptian father went out among the Israelites, and a fight broke out in the camp between him and an Israelite. The son of the Israelite woman blasphemed the Name with a curse; so they brought him to Moses." (Leviticus 24:10-11)

This man is not described as being an Israelite (a Jew), but rather he is called "the son of an Israelite mother and an Egyptian father" and "The son of the Israelite woman." This man was "among" the Israelites, but he himself was not considered to be an Israelite (even though his mother was an Israelite). So we can see that if a person's mother was Jewish but his father was not, then technically he was not considered to be Jewish. Notice that the New Testament shows that such a person has the freedom to become identified with the Jews, as we can see in Acts 16:1-2:

"He [Paul] came to Derbe and then to Lystra, where a disciple named Timothy lived, whose mother was a Jewess and a believer, but whose father was a Greek. The brothers at Lystra and Iconium spoke well of him. Paul wanted to take him along on the journey, so he circumcised him because of the Jews who lived in that area, for they all knew that his father was a Greek." (Acts 16:1-3)

This passage has caused some confusion among Christians because the apostle Paul circumcised Timothy, yet Titus was not compelled to be circumcised:

"Yet not even Titus, who was with me, was compelled to be circumcised, even though he was a Greek. This matter arose because some false brothers had infiltrated our ranks to spy on the freedom we have in Christ Jesus and to make us slaves." (Galatians 2:3-4)

Notice the distinction here. Neither Timothy nor Titus had a Jewish father (so they were not considered to be Jewish), and neither of these men had been circumcised. But for some reason Timothy was then circumcised, and Titus was not. Why? It's because Timothy was half-Jewish, and therefore he was free to identify himself as a Jew by being circumcised. But doesn't that mean he was putting himself under the Law of Moses, which Paul repeatedly preached against doing (as in Galatians 3:10)? No, because circumcision was the sign and seal of the covenant that God made with Abraham and his descendants, centuries before the Law was given to Moses (see Genesis 17:9-14 and Galatians 3:16-17, for example). Paul felt that it was best for Timothy to be identified as a Jew (which Timothy was allowed to do since his mother was Jewish), because Paul and Timothy were ministering among Jews. Paul didn't want to create a stumbling block for these Jews because of Timothy's Gentile father (recall that in 1 Corinthians 9:20 Paul said, "To the Jews I became like a Jew, to win the Jews. To those under the law I became like one under the law (though I myself am not under the law), so as to win those under the law."). On the other hand, Titus was fully a Gentile. He was not considered to be Jewish in any way, whether "spiritually" or otherwise, and therefore there was no purpose in circumcising him. Consider that if Titus had become a "spiritual Jew" because he was a Christian, then he could have been circumcised like Timothy so that he could fully identify himself with the Jews. However, Titus was never called a "spiritual Jew," and he was never circumcised. He was considered to be a Gentile Christian, not a "spiritual Jew."

Furthermore, notice that the first Christians (all of whom were Jews) had some confusion about how the new Gentile Christians should behave:

"Then some of the believers who belonged to the party of the Pharisees stood up and said, "The Gentiles must be circumcised and required to obey the law of Moses." The apostles and elders met to consider this question." (Acts 15:5-6)

We can see that some of the Jewish Christians felt that the Gentile Christians should be compelled to become like Jews. Consider that if Gentile Christians are "spiritual Jews," then this was a perfect time for the apostles and elders to make that clear. But notice the Church leadership's response. At the Council of Jerusalem, a letter was written to the Gentile believers to help clarify the proper position of the Gentile Christians concerning Jewish practices:

"With them they sent the following letter: The apostles and elders, your brothers, To the Gentile believers in Antioch, Syria and Cilicia: Greetings. We have heard that some went out from us without our authorization and disturbed you, troubling your minds by what they said. ... It seemed good to the Holy Spirit and to us not to burden you with anything beyond the following requirements: You are to abstain from food sacrificed to idols, from blood, from the meat of strangled animals and from sexual immorality. You will do well to avoid these things. Farewell." (Acts 15:23-24, 28-29)

If the Gentile Christians were now "spiritual Jews," then this letter to them from the apostles and elders would have been a perfect time to point this out and to encourage the Gentile Christians to consider themselves as being a part of the Israel of God. But the apostles and elders said just the opposite! They essentially said that the Gentile Christians were not Jews in any way and therefore did not need to be circumcised nor to consider themselves as being a part of Israel nor to begin following Jewish practices. Instead, the apostles and elders basically asked the Gentile Christians to follow the law of love by not doing certain things which are detestable to Jews (to avoid causing conflicts between themselves and the Jewish Christians). This exactly echoes what Paul said in Romans 14:13-15, 20-21:

"Therefore let us stop passing judgment on one another. Instead, make up your mind not to put any stumbling block or obstacle in your brother's way. As one who is in the Lord Jesus, I am fully convinced that no food is unclean in itself. But if anyone regards something as unclean, then for him it is unclean. If your brother is distressed because of what you eat, you are no longer acting in love. Do not by your eating destroy your brother for whom Christ died. ... Do not destroy the work of God for the sake of food. All food is clean, but it is wrong for a man to eat anything that causes someone else to stumble. It is better not to eat meat or drink wine or to do anything else that will cause your brother to fall." (Romans 14:13-15, 20-21)

So we can see by the actions of the apostles and the leaders of the Church that Gentile Christians were not in any way considered to be Jewish, whether "spiritual" or otherwise.

Conclusion

The New Testament makes many distinctions between Jewish Christians and Gentile Christians, and it makes many distinctions between Israel and the Church. The weight of evidence shows that Gentile Christians are not "spiritual Jews," and that the Church has not "replaced" Israel. For more proof and more distinctions between saved Jews and saved Gentiles, as well as the different programs that God has for Israel and for the Church, I invite you to see my articles called:

I hope this has been helpful, and may the Lord abundantly bless you as you study His Word!

In His Love,
Dave Root
Houston, TX, USA

This article contains my own personal views after doing my best to prayerfully, honestly, thoroughly, and objectively study what God has said in His Word, and I pray that it will be a blessing to you! This material is not copyrighted. Please feel free to copy and distribute it for the glory of the Lord, as long as you don't modify it without permission or charge money for it.

All Scripture quotations, unless otherwise indicated, are taken from the HOLY BIBLE, NEW INTERNATIONAL VERSION (R). NIV (R). Copyright (C) 1973, 1978, 1984 by International Bible Society. Used by permission of Zondervan Publishing House. All rights reserved. (Emphasis added.)